A game pays £10 on a six and nothing otherwise, and a market maker quotes 1.40 at 1.80 on it. At which price do you trade, and do you buy or sell?
Buy at 1.80
Sell at 1.40
Buy at 1.40
Don't trade
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Answer: Don't trade
Fair value is 610≈1.67, inside the market. Buying at the 1.80 offer overpays and selling at the 1.40 bid undersells, so neither trade has positive expectation. (You cannot buy at the bid.)
26EasyType asked atJ.P. MorganDRWGoldman Sachs
A die is rolled once and you are paid £10 if it shows a six. What is the fair value of the bet, in pounds?
A bookmaker offers decimal odds of 1.9 on both sides of a fair coin toss. What is the overround, as a percentage?
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Answer:≈5.26%
Implied probabilities are 1.91 each, totalling 1.92=1.0526: 5.26% above certainty. That margin is the bookmaker's edge.
33EasyType asked atJane StreetXTX MarketsJ.P. Morgan
A bet wins or loses £1 with equal probability. What is the variance of the outcome?
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Answer:1
The mean is 0 and the square of the outcome is always 1, so the variance is 1.
34MediumType asked atVirtuMorgan StanleyIMC
A stock is 50. You are long 200 shares and short 4 call options, each on 100 shares, with delta 0.4. What is your net delta, in shares?
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Answer:40
Short calls give −4×100×0.4=−160 deltas, so the net is 200−160=40 shares.
35MediumType asked atDRWMorgan StanleyJane Street
Make a market on the sum of the two highest of three fair dice. What is the fair value?
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Answer:24203≈8.46
The sum of all three is 10.5 on average, and the lowest averages 2449≈2.04 (sum P(min≥k)=(67−k)3 over k). So 10.5−2.04≈8.46. Quote around it, say 8–9, and tighten if the other side trades.
36MediumType asked atIMCJump TradingMorgan Stanley
A stock is at 100 and in one year will be either 130 or 90. Interest rates are zero, and analysts give the up move a probability of 0.8. What is a one-year call struck at 100 worth?
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Answer:7.5
Price by replication, not by the analysts' probability. The risk-neutral probability of the up move makes the stock a fair bet: 100=130q+90(1−q), so q=0.25. The call pays 30 or 0, so it is worth 0.25×30=7.5. Using 0.8 gives 24, which a trader could arbitrage by selling the call and buying 0.75 shares.
37HardType asked atJane StreetBarclaysIMC
A stock is worth 60 or 40 with equal probability, and only you as market maker don't know which. 20% of the traders who come to you know the true value and buy only when it is 60; the rest buy or sell at random with equal probability. At what offer price do you break even on the trades that buy from you?
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Answer:52
Set the offer at the expected value given that someone buys. If the value is 60, a buy comes with probability 0.2+0.8×0.5=0.6; if it is 40, with probability 0.8×0.5=0.4. So E[V∣buy]=0.6+0.460×0.6+40×0.4=52. By symmetry the bid is 48. The spread pays for the informed traders.
38MediumType asked atHudson River TradingFlow TradersMorgan Stanley
A strategy has an annualised Sharpe ratio of 2 and its annual returns are roughly normal. Approximately what is the probability that it loses money in a given year? Give a percentage.
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Answer:≈2.3%
A Sharpe ratio of 2 means the mean annual return is two standard deviations above zero. A loss needs a draw more than 2 standard deviations below the mean: P(Z<−2)≈2.3%, roughly one year in 44. At a Sharpe of 1 the same calculation gives about 16%, one year in six.
39MediumType asked atJane StreetCitadelDRW
You roll a fair die and are paid its face value in pounds. You may pay £1 to roll once more, in which case you must accept the second roll. Playing optimally, what is the game worth?
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Answer:623≈3.83
Rerolling is worth 3.5−1=2.5, so reroll on a 1 or a 2 and keep 3 or more. Value: 62×2.5+61(3+4+5+6)=65+3=623.
40MediumType asked atIMCJ.P. MorganXTX Markets
A book's daily P&L is normally distributed with mean 0 and standard deviation £10,000. What is its one-day 99% value at risk, to the nearest £100?
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Answer:≈£23,300
The 99% quantile of the standard normal is 2.326, so the loss exceeded on 1 day in 100 is 2.326×£10,000≈£23,300. Using 1.96 gives the 97.5% figure, not the 99%.
41EasyType asked atXTX MarketsJane StreetBarclays
An option pays max(X−3,0) pounds, where X is the roll of a fair die. What is it worth?
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Answer:£1
It pays 1, 2 or 3 on a roll of 4, 5 or 6, and nothing otherwise: 61+2+3=1. It is a call struck at 3 on a die.
You win £2 on heads and lose £1 on tails with a fair coin, and play 100 times. What is the standard deviation of your total winnings?
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Answer:£15
One play has mean £0.50 and E[X2]=24+1=2.5, so variance 2.5−0.25=2.25 and standard deviation 1.5. Over 100 independent plays the variance is 225 and the standard deviation £15. Expected total: £50, so a loss after 100 plays is more than three standard deviations away.
One round of the quoting game played out with numbers, including how an informed counterparty should change your width: the market-making interview game.